Daily Current Affairs Quiz – 24th September 2024

Correct Answer:  (c) Rs 100000/-

Explanation: The Union Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, Ministry of Labour & Employment (MoL&E) announced that now subscribers of the Employees ‘Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) can withdraw up to Rs 1 lakh from their Provident Fund (PF) accounts for personal financial needs, an increase from the current limit of Rs 50,000. He also announced that employees who have not completed 6 months in the current job are now eligible to withdraw amounts, which was earlier prohibited. He informed that Government of India (GoI) is currently working on the proposal to increase the income ceiling under the EPFO and Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) from the current Rs 15,000 per month and Rs 21,000 respectively.

Correct Answer:  (b) Meghalaya

Explanation:  The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved a USD 50 million loan for initiative namely, ‘Climate-Adaptative Community-Based Water-Harvesting Project’ to enhance water resource management and strengthen climate resilience in Meghalaya, India. The project focuses on improving water access and supporting communities in adapting to climate change through sustainable Water-Harvesting System (WHS). The project supports the Meghalaya State Water Policy 2019.

• The project will involve the construction of 532 water-storage facilitiesacross 12 districts, designed for climate resilience. These facilities will help manage heavy rainfall and flash floods during the monsoon, providing irrigation during the dry winter season. There will be development of 3,000 hectares of command area to ensure reliable irrigation for farmers. Small multipurpose reservoirs will be constructed or upgraded, with 50 weather stations set up for data collection and monitoring.
• Micro-irrigation systems will be introduced in the Garo, Jaintia, and Khasiregions, and pilot tests of renewable energy microhydropower will be done. Localized water security strategies will be managed by Village Employment Councils (VEC), Watershed Management Committees (WMC), and Water Users Associations (WUA) after providing training on climate-resilient agricultural practices and alternative livelihoods. Women farmers will receive special training to boost productivity in irrigated agriculture, focusing on horticulture and fisheries. ADB will strengthen the capacity of the Meghalaya State Watershed and Wasteland Development Agency and the Soil and Water Conservation Department for better water resource planning and management. A comprehensive state-wide water-harvesting master plan will be incorporated for weather patterns and disaster risk management.

Correct Answer:  (a) 2030-31, 6.7%

Explanation:  According to the S&P Global’s inaugural edition of the report titled “India Forward: Emerging Perspectives” released on 19th September, 2024, India is on track to become the 3rd largest economy in the world and transition to the Upper-Middle-Income(UMI) category by Financial Year 2030-31 (FY31), driven by a projected annual growth rate of 6.7%. The report noted that India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) grew by an impressive 8.2% in FY24 and also expects to grow at 6.8% in FY25. However, it suggested that sustained reforms are crucial to improving business transactions and logistics, boosting private sector investment, and reducing reliance on public capital.

Correct Answer:  (c) Vinod Bachchan

Explanation:  Renowned Bollywood film producer Vinod Bachchan was honored with the prestigious Global Prestige Award at the House of Lords, United Kingdom (UK) Parliament for his outstanding contribution in Indian film industry, and in promoting Indian culture and strengthening cinematic ties between India and the global stage, particularly the UK. The award ceremony was held in the presence of Lord Bellamy KC and Lord Rami Ranger CBE, a distinguished Member of Parliament. Vinod Bachchan produced Bollywood hits such as Tanu Weds Manu, Zila Ghaziabad, Ginny Weds Sunny, and Shaadi Mein Zaroor Aana, received the award for his influential role in bringing Indian cinema to global audiences.

It honors individuals who have made significant contributions in their field. Presented at the UK Parliament, this award aims to celebrate diversity and excellence across various domains, including arts, culture, and business. The award highlights the importance of cultural exchange and the role of cinema in bridging gaps between different societies.

Correct Answer:  (b) 22nd September

Explanation: World Rhino Day is celebrated on September 22 every year. This special day provides the opportunity for cause-related organizations, NGO, zoos, and members of the public to celebrate rhinos in their own unique ways. World Rhino Day is a day of awareness for all five rhino species and the work being done to save them.  Since 2011, World Rhino Day has been celebrated internationally on September 22nd by rhino experts and advocates around the world. On World Rhino Day, the International Rhino Foundation celebrates the five species of rhinos and all those who care about them.

Rhino Population in India 2024

• As of 2024, India’s rhino population has been steadily increasing due to ongoing conservation efforts. 
• The country is home to the greater one-horned rhinoceros, primarily found in the northeastern state of Assam.
• India and Nepal have estimated over 4,014 rhinos, with major populations residing in Kaziranga National Park. 

Rhino Parks in India

• India is home to several national parks and wildlife reserves that are dedicated to protecting rhinos.
• Some of the most famous rhino parks in India include,
• Kaziranga National Park (Assam): The most famous park for the one-horned rhinoceros, boasting the largest population in India.
• Manas National Park (Assam): Known for its successful rhino reintroduction programs.
• Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary (Assam): Often referred to as the park with the highest density of rhinos.

Correct Answer:  (b) Mother Mary Comes to Me

Explanation:  Arundhati Roy’s debut memoir, titled “Mother Mary Comes to Me,” is set to be released in September 2025 by Penguin Random House. The memoir reflects on Roy’s complex relationship with her mother, Mary Roy, who passed away in September 2022 and was also a women’s rights activist. Roy describes her mother as “my shelter and my storm,” indicating the profound influence she had on her life. The memoir aims to explore the emotional and transformative journey Roy underwent in response to her mother’s death, reflecting on their relationship.

The memoir promises to combine heart, humor, and raw emotions, portraying a personal and political awakening. Roy is recognized for her award-winning novels, such as “The God of Small Things” and “The Ministry of Utmost Happiness,” as well as her politically charged essays. Manasi Subramaniam, editor-in-chief of Penguin Press, highlighted the privilege of publishing this memoir, describing it as a visceral account filled with love and awakening.

Correct Answer:  (d) Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: In 2022, Uttar Pradesh accounted for 23.78% of all atrocities against Scheduled Castes (SCs). Rajasthan reported 16.75% of cases (2nd), while Madhya Pradesh followed with 14.97% (3rd). These three states, along with others, contributed to nearly 97.7% of reported atrocities against SCs. The report emphasizes the need for targeted interventions to address caste-based violence in these regions. Of the total 51,656 SC-related cases, Bihar, Odisha, and Maharashtra also reported significant numbers. Madhya Pradesh led in atrocities against Scheduled Tribes (STs) with 30.61% of cases. The conviction rate for such cases has seen a decline, dropping to 32.4% in 2022.

Correct Answer:  (b) Rhea Singha

Explanation:  Rhea Singha, a 19-year-old model from Gujarat, was crowned Miss Universe India 2024 in Jaipur. She will represent India at the global Miss Universe competition in Mexico. The 19-year-old Gujarati beauty Rhea Singha was recently crowned Miss Universe India 2024.  She won the title after defeating 51 candidates, and she has represented India in the next Miss Universe 2024 competition.  The judging panel for Miss Universe India 2024, alongside Urvashi Rautela, featured Nikhil Anand, Vietnamese celebrity Nguyen Quynh, fashion photographer Rian Fernandes, and entrepreneur Rajeev Shrivastava. Miss Universe India is a beauty pageant under the Glamanand Group organization that selects India’s official representative to the Miss Universe pageant in 2024.

Correct Answer:  (d) Ibrahima Cheikh Diong

Explanation:  The Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage, aimed at assisting countries ravaged by climate-driven disasters, has appointed Ibrahima Cheikh Diong, a Senegalese finance specialist and dual U.S. citizen, as its first director. The fund, created in 2022 under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), is administered by the World Bank and represents a significant win for developing nations who have long pushed for support against climate disasters. Wealthy nations had resisted this fund, fearing it would lead to compensation demands for their greenhouse gas emissions.

With Diong’s appointment and the Philippines selected as the fund’s headquarters, the $800 million pledged at COP28 in Dubai last year can now be distributed. This progress is seen as critical ahead of the upcoming COP29 summit in Baku, Azerbaijan, where further financial contributions will be sought from countries. Loss and damage funding has been a highly contentious issue in U.N. climate negotiations, particularly between developed and developing countries. Developing nations argue that wealthier countries are responsible for much of the climate damage and should support those disproportionately affected by disasters such as rising sea levels and severe storms. “The Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage will make a significant difference to those disproportionately affected, and I take this responsibility with humility and a full commitment to serve,”.

Correct Answer:  (d) Budapest, Hungary

Explanation:  Indian Men’s and Women’s chess teams won gold medals in their respective events at the 45th edition of the FIDE Chess Olympiad, held in the Hungarian capital of Budapest from 10-23 September 2024. The next 46th FIDE Chess Olympiad will be held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan 2026. The last time a country won gold both in the Open(men’s) and women’s section of the chess Olympiad was China in 2018. Batumi, Georgia,  The Indian team retained the Gaprindashvili Cup, which is awarded to the best combined result in the Open and Women’s sections. In the last 43rd edition of the Chess Olympiad, which was held in Chennai, Tami Nadu, in 2022, the Indian team won the Gaprindashvili Cup. India became the second country after Russia which successfully retained the   Gaprindashvili Cup.

• Indian Men’s Team Win Hamilton-Russell Cup: The Indian team consisting of Arjun Erigasi, Rameshbabu Pragannandha, Dommaraju Gukesh, Vidit Gujrathi and Pentala Harikrishna won the gold medal in the Open section. The Indian men’s team was awarded the gold medal and the Hamilton Russell Cup.  The Indian team topped the points table with 21 points, followed by the United Statesin second place and Uzbekistan in third place.
• Indian Women Wins Vera Menchik Cup: The Indian women’s team of Vantika Agarwal, Divya Deshmukh, Harika Dranavali, Vaishali Rameshbabu and Tania Sachdevwon the gold medal and the Vera Menchik Cup. The Kazakhstan team was awarded the silver medal, while the USA team settled for the bronze medal.
• Board Prizes for Best Individual Performance : The Chess Olympiad is a team event, but board prizes are also awarded to honour the individual performances. The best Indian performances are as follows :

Open – Board 1:

• Gold: Gukesh D, India
  Silver: Nodirbek Abdusattorov, Uzbekistan
  Bronze: Magnus Carlsen, Norway

Open – Board 3:

• Gold: Arjun Erigaisi, India
  Silver:Yu Yangyi, China
  Bronze:Le Tuan Minh, Vietnam

Women – Board 3:

• Gold: Divya Deshmukh, India
  Silver: Sabrina Vega Gutierrez, Spain
  Bronze:Elina Danielian, Armenia

Women – Board 4:

• Gold: Vantika Agrawal, India
  Silver: Alice Lee, USA
  Bronze:Anna M. Sargsyan, Armenia

Correct Answer:  (d) ISRO, IN-SPACe, and NSIL

Explanation:  ISRO, IN-SPACe, and NSIL have reached a significant milestone by signing 75 Technology Transfer Agreements (TTAs) with non-governmental entities (NGEs). On September 20, 2024, five TTAs were signed at IN-SPACe, Bengaluru, with Anabond Ltd., Salvo Industries Pvt. Ltd., Micropack Pvt. Ltd., and Astra Microwave Products Ltd. These TTAs reflect India’s efforts to boost private participation in space technology, expanding the scope for commercial applications and the overall growth of the space industry.

• The TTAs aim to empower private entities by granting access to ISRO’s developed technologies. This enables these entities to leverage space technology for commercial applications in sectors such as agriculture, energy, infrastructure, defence, telecommunications, and cybersecurity.
• Pawan Goenka, Chairman of IN-SPACe, highlighted that achieving the milestone of 75 TTAs showcases a step forward in promoting India’s private sector’s involvement in space technology, contributing to a thriving space economy and enhancing India’s position in the global space ecosystem.
• Established in June 2020, IN-SPACe acts as a single-window, independent nodal agency under the Department of Space (DOS). Its role includes promoting, enabling, authorizing, and supervising various space activities of NGEs, including satellite and launch vehicle development, providing space-based services, and sharing ISRO’s infrastructure.

Correct Answer:  (b) Karnataka

Explanation:  According to the working paper by the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister(EAC-PM) titled ‘Relative Economic Performance of Indian States: 1960-61 to 2023-24’, there are significant economic transformations in various Indian states since the liberalization reforms of the 1990s. The paper focuses exclusively on the relative performance of states, measured using two indicators :Share in India’s GDP and Relative per capita income. This report analyzes the changes in the share of different states in India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) from Financial Year 1990-91 (FY91) to 2023-24 (FY24). Karnataka, Gujarat, Delhi, Andhra Pradesh (AP), Telangana, and Haryana have made the largest gains in increasing their shares in the national GDP. In contrast, West Bengal (WB), Uttar Pradesh (UP), Uttarakhand, Bihar, Punjab, and Assam’s shares in India’s overall GDP have gone down.

Economic Growth and GDP Share Changes:

• Gujarat:Increased its share of national GDP from 4% in FY91 to 8.1% in 2023-24.
• Tamil Nadu:Experienced a recovery, with its share rising from 1% in FY91 to 8.9% in FY24, despite a decline from 8.7% in 1960-61.
• Karnataka: Grew its GDP share from 3%in FY91 to 8.2% in FY24, driven by its emergence as a technology hub.

Correct Answer:  (b) 2 working day

Explanation:  The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has amended the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Issue and Listing of Non-Convertible Securities) Regulations, 2021 to streamline the public issuance of debt securities. The amendments, which came into effect on September 18, 2024, include the following:

• Reduction in minimum subscription period: The minimum period for which a public issue of debt securities or non-convertible redeemable preference shares is kept open has been reduced from 3 working days to 2 working days.The maximum period remains the same at 10 working days.
• Clarification on the use of QR codes:The regulations now clarify that issuers whose non-convertible securities are listed on the date of filing of the offer document or placement memorandum may provide a web link and a static QR code of the audited financial statements subject to certain conditions.
• Additional requirements for debenture trustees: The regulations have been amended to specify the formats to be used in cases of secured and unsecured debt securities at the time of filing the draft offer document and at the time of filing the listing application by the issuer.
• Introduction of a record date for payment of interest, dividend, and redemption or repayment amount: The regulations have been amended to require issuers to fix a record date for payment of interest, dividend, and payment of redemption or repayment amount or other purposes specified by the Board.

Correct Answer:  (c) Pune International Airport

Explanation:  Maharashtra government approved a proposal to name Pune airport as Jagadguru Sant Tukaram Maharaj Pune International Airport. Last month, Murlidhar Mohol proposed naming the airport after the 17th-century saint, noting that Lohegaon, where the airport is situated, was the village of Sant Tukaram Maharaj’s mother. According to the procedure, the state government submits the proposal to the central government, which then makes the final decision. To rename an airport, a resolution must first be approved by the state assembly. It then requires approval from the Union cabinet before being officially notified in the Gazette of India.

Sant Tukaram Maharaj was a 17th-century Marathi poet, and Hindu saint, popularly known as Tuka, Tukobaraya, Tukoba in Maharashtra. He was a sant of Warkari (Varkari) sampradaya which venerates the god Vithoba.  He was part of the egalitarian, personalized Varkari devotionalism tradition.

Correct Answer:  (b) 19th

Explanation:   19th India Australia Joint Ministerial Commission Meeting in Australia will be attended by Union Minister Piyush Goyal. He will co-chair the meeting with Minister of Trade and Tourism of Australia Don Farrell on 25 September 2024. At the meeting, ways to further elevate bilateral economic engagement will be discussed by both countries. The strong and expanding commercial and investment links between Australia and India would be further strengthened by the visit.